Yeah I get that
But they have a history of fees they owe which will be in this years numbers already ….
Poolusic and Lukaku were big money. Mendy, ziyech, haivertz
Which is amortisation. Every player they have bought will count.
Yeah I get that
But they have a history of fees they owe which will be in this years numbers already ….
Poolusic and Lukaku were big money. Mendy, ziyech, haivertz
I thought owner investment allowed an additional increase in allowable losses of 30m above the limit that UEFA set in the new rules (I assume you are talking about UEFA and not PL?). They're way above that...and of course, still have to pass the old rules.
Unless they flared the debt in the purchase so you can take the hit onceWhich is amortisation. Every player they have bought will count.
Unless they flared the debt in the purchase so you can take the hit once
You amortise to stop the FFP hit and in most cases transfers are paid that way too… in instalments
But if they cheated the debt when buying they don’t need the amortisation
No no I’m sure you’re wrong.No. Whatever the price you pay or how you pay it, is split over the contract.
Basically in financial terms you are swapping cash for an asset (player). So you are not losing anything. But the asset depreciates in value (duration of contract). So you spend £10m on a player on a 5 year contract (no matter how you pay it), their amortisation will be £2m a year.
Yephttps://thesportsgrail.com/explaine...mortization-in-football-and-how-does-it-work/
“When a player is bought, his cost is capitalised on the balance sheet and written-down (amortised) throughout the life of his contract,” . In layman’s terms, transfer fees are spread out throughout the duration of a player’s contract for accounting purposes. If we take an example, then in the case of Chelsea’s recent purchase of Romelu Lukaku, a club amortises €90 million over a five-year deal which means € 19.5m per season.
In essence, amortisation is the player’s transfer price divided by the term of the contract. Depending on how many years the player has played for the club, the amortised worth of the player decreases each year. Ronaldo’s transfer to Juventus is a great example. They paid 100 million dollars for a four-year deal. As a result, Ronaldo’s amortised worth decreases by $25 million per year. Let’s imagine if they sold him for 70 million dollars after two years then They would declare a 20 million plusvalenza in their books since he’s worth 50 million in amortised value by then.
Yep
I get that
And you can reduce it
That way you have no value on the books and your player sales are then all profit
It’s why the new buys are all joining on 71/2 year contracts
You canYou can't reduce it. You can sell the player, then it will be recorded as the price minus whatever amortisation is left. Or give a new contract, which will be whatever amortisation left, divided by the new contract.
Yes the longer the contract the smaller the amortisation.
You can
I’ve seen it many times
You can’t increase it
It’s netted against capital value
How what?How?
How what?
You issue your accounts annually
You have write offs which include your amortisations which is Baka fed against your profit
You have a high profit year and you want to pay less tax your bring forward your amortisation’s which means they are not available next year for “profit balancing” but they help you in the year you do it
Banks do it with property and building assets. BP and tescos would do it too
In fact what tescos would do is buy some plant (fridge equipment). Pay for it when it’s commissioned. Write off the purchase over 5 or 7 years (I can’t remember which) and halfway through that sell the asset and lease it back with the revenue of the sale coming in as profit the. The year before the sale they would reduce the amortisation so it had no value on the books and then the following year it was BIg money coming in.
It was all aligned with IFRS as I had to do some work on it
IIRC derby had a big issue with it as they did something funny where they assumed as the end of the contract duration the player would still have a residual value
UEFA would accept anything as long as it’s legal and in accordance with IFRS or the other accountancy rules GAP I thinkOk i get you. Teams did it to a certain extent with covid (everton a lot, which should have been called foul). But the write offs "should" be minimal. Not sure uefa would accept it. Basically the rules are amortisation, wages agents fees.
YesSo if we end up selling a 25% stake for £1bn is there a way within the rules that allows us to spend that on the team?
I know we can spend something like £400m currently within the rules so would this go up to £1.4bn?
Yes
We can spend the lot it seems
I think we can spend a loadJoking aside I am trying to understand that if we cannot spend it, then how this differs to the chelsea situation where it seems they intend to spend about a billion in no time at all and apparently this doesn't breach ffp.
Joking aside I am trying to understand that if we cannot spend it, then how this differs to the chelsea situation where it seems they intend to spend about a billion in no time at all and apparently this doesn't breach ffp.