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Coronavirus

The earliest known case in the UK is in February in Edinburgh. Five people contracted it at a Nike conference. I haven't seen any evidence that it was here earlier and I think that it is reasonable to assume that it would have spread very quickly with no measures in place.
The first French case was mid-late Dec 19 at the latest.

So if that model of the number of people infected is accurate (if it's the one using the cruise ship as its basis then it's almost certainly not), it's not very contagious at all.
 
The first French case was mid-late Dec 19 at the latest.

So if that model of the number of people infected is accurate (if it's the one using the cruise ship as its basis then it's almost certainly not), it's not very contagious at all.

New modelling suggests it was in the UK earlier as well.

Considering it was pretty much life as normal till the lock down that’s 6/7 weeks (from memory) and only 2 million caught it when pubs / clubs/ football / Cheltenham was open
 
Ok I'm going to maybe ask a question that makes me look stupid...

How can we tell what the R number is with the limited number of tests that we are running now? And the limitations of who those tests are being restricted to?
 
The earliest known case in the UK is in February in Edinburgh. Five people contracted it at a Nike conference. I haven't seen any evidence that it was here earlier and I think that it is reasonable to assume that it would have spread very quickly with no measures in place.
I dont know if you mean official (first case) but read the below and it's likely these folk had it

https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/health-52589449
 
The first French case was mid-late Dec 19 at the latest.

So if that model of the number of people infected is accurate (if it's the one using the cruise ship as its basis then it's almost certainly not), it's not very contagious at all.

The French case was one case and an old sample was tested supposedly. It may well be true but one test from one old sample doesn't prove it was here earlier. It just gives us a possibility of it. I don't think we can use that for modelling purposes
 
Ok I'm going to maybe ask a question that makes me look stupid...

How can we tell what the R number is with the limited number of tests that we are running now? And the limitations of who those tests are being restricted to?
images
 
Ok I'm going to maybe ask a question that makes me look stupid...

How can we tell what the R number is with the limited number of tests that we are running now? And the limitations of who those tests are being restricted to?
I wouldn’t trust the tests, their a shambles
Getting people tested for the sake of it doesn’t give them an accurate R number does it and using random sampling with the current testing set up is IMO still poor
 
Anecdotal, but my wife was very ill with cough/fever/headache/loss of smell in January, she's convinced she had it.
I had pneumonia that came out of nowhere and it lasted for a long wile even with 3 lots of anti bototics which did nothing... my GP thinks I had it then too and that was January
 
The French case was one case and an old sample was tested supposedly. It may well be true but one test from one old sample doesn't prove it was here earlier. It just gives us a possibility of it. I don't think we can use that for modelling purposes
It has to be an old sample - that's the only way to prove the date.
 
I wouldn’t trust the tests, their a shambles
Getting people tested for the sake of it doesn’t give them an accurate R number does it and using random sampling with the current testing set up is IMO still poor

Ok.... so again how do we arrive at the assumtion that the R number is under 1?
 
The first French case was mid-late Dec 19 at the latest.

So if that model of the number of people infected is accurate (if it's the one using the cruise ship as its basis then it's almost certainly not), it's not very contagious at all.

Today's quote of the day.

Did you ever work for Saddam as his Minster for Propaganda back during the first invasion of Iraq?
 
Ok.... so again how do we arrive at the assumtion that the R number is under 1?
I think the French and Spanish have been using an antibody test. And I read the reason they've done a mass test, is to test the test.

We have been using a PCR test over a shortish period with 5k odd families who have repeatedly taken the test to see if they currently have it. This is the first big (ish) data collection that can be factored in to the R figure as previously various smaller and sometimes unreliable data, plus observational data would be thrown into the modelling pot to spew out something that was far from reliable.
 
Today's quote of the day.

Did you ever work for Saddam as his Minster for Propaganda back during the first invasion of Iraq?
No, I just don't work myself up into a panic over every little thing.

How do you explain such a low death rate over 6 months (probably more) if it's both highly contagious and highly lethal?
 
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