So, totally ignorant of how sanctions work at an individual level - would an EU citizen be allowed to buy Chelsea, even if the money goes to somewhere other than Abramovich? Clearly the UK government have deemed this to be Ok but that’s before EU sanctions were in place. Also I am not sure what level of sanctions, if any, the US have in place but given previous cited interest from a potential US buyer and I think a US investment bank has been charged with finding a buyer I assume he’s not sanctioned there or only at a low level. I guess my question is, is it where the money ends up that is the pertinent point or is it having commercial interaction of any kind with a sanctioned entity that is prohibited (apart from any exemptions such as given by UK government). If that makes sense?